I assumed a complete rebalance to the target allocation
  at the beginning of each year (after withdrawal of that year's living expenses). I ignored
  any associated tax consequences associated with this action.  
  I analyzed retirement starting years from 1926 through
  1979 inclusive. This is a total of 54 different 30-year retirement scenarios.
  For starting years after 1969 that would have included
  years later than 1998 (the last year for which I had data) I simply rolled
  over back to 1960, 1961, etc. The choice of 1960 was a strictly arbitrary choice. 
  I did not do a complete MVO (Mean Variance Optimization),
  but the playing around that I did indicated to me that Long Term Bonds (government or
  corporate) offered very little value so I ignored these two asset classes in my asset
  allocation.
  I used a 5% short term (treasuries) allocation in all
  cases because nothing else seems practical to me (even index funds tend to have a couple
  percent allocation to cash in most cases).
  I ignored any investment expenses (fund expenses,
  brokers fees, etc.) that might be encountered in practice.
  Each withdrawal was made at the beginning of the year and
  placed into an account (in practical terms probably an interest bearing checking account)
  whose net return was .33 x initial value x Treasury Bill return. I was trying to simulate
  the return of that checking account across the year (average balance of approximately 50%
  of the withdrawal at the beginning of the year and earning somewhat less than Treasury
  Bills).
  The most straight-forward use of this data would be to
  treat taxes just like any of your other expenses.